I've been dating a man (55yo) for over 5 months now. We enjoy one another. We get along. Things are generally going well. Though we have had lots of oral sex, we've never had intercourse. He has never been able to get hard enough to successfully penetrate me. He had a doctor's appointment today, and I asked if he would consider discussing getting Viagra. His response was that he didn't think he needed it. I'm now wondering if maybe he does actually get good and hard, but just not with me. I asked him that question and he brushed it off with a shake of the head and a kiss. Am I being hypersensitive, or is this a valid concern? Why would he spend so much time with me if he finds me so unappealing that he can't get hard enough to fully be with me? Or if it's not me, why wouldn't he want to try and improve it?
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